A 32-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder with psychotic features comes to the office for evaluation of infertility. She says, "I was hospitalized 2 years ago for depression and heard voices telling me I was worthless. We finally found the right medications and my depression is stable; I feel ready to start a family. We have been having intercourse regularly for the past year. I was hopeful when my period was late but so disappointed when the pregnancy test was negative again." The patient's last menstrual period was 4 months ago; her menses tend to be erratic, occurring every 30-60 days and lasting 4-8 days. Medical history includes hypertension that is well-controlled with medication. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is normal except for notable breast tenderness. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for this patient's infertility?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Carbamazepine
C) Citalopram
D) Lamotrigine
E) Lithium
F) Nifedipine
G) Quetiapine
H) Risperidone
Correct Answer:
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