A 26-year-old man with bipolar I disorder comes to the office for a follow-up visit. He experienced his first manic episode 7 years ago and responded well to lithium. The patient became noncompliant with his medication after his condition improved and then experienced a second manic episode 9 months later. Over the next 5 years, he experienced 3 additional manic episodes, 2 depressive episodes, and a suicide attempt. Since his most recent hospitalization for a manic episode a year ago, he has remained on lithium and has had no depressive, manic, or hypomanic signs or symptoms. The patient also has no medication side effects, and lithium levels confirm that he is compliant. Today, he inquires about the possibility of discontinuing lithium as he has been very stable over the past year and prefers not to "be dependent on medication." There is a history of bipolar disorder in a maternal aunt. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient's condition?
A) Continue long-term lithium maintenance pharmacotherapy
B) Discontinue lithium and increase appointment frequency for close monitoring
C) Discontinue lithium and recommend initiating psychotherapy
D) Discontinue lithium gradually over the course of several months
E) Discontinue lithium gradually over the course of 2-4 weeks and initiate valproate
F) Encourage patient to continue lithium for an additional year then discontinue gradually
Correct Answer:
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