A 44-year-old man comes to the office due to depression, loss of interest, impaired concentration, fatigue, and poor sleep. The patient is not suicidal and has no psychotic symptoms. He has no psychiatric history. Physical examination and laboratory evaluation are unremarkable. Major depressive disorder is diagnosed, and he is treated with 50 mg of sertraline. After a month of antidepressant treatment, the patient reports improvement in his energy level and sleep, although he continues to struggle with some sadness and low motivation. The dose of sertraline is increased to 100 mg. At his 2-month follow-up, the patient has no depressive symptoms and says, "I feel like I'm totally back to normal. Work is going well and I'm really enjoying life again." He has no adverse effects from the sertraline. The patient asks when he can stop taking the medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) Continue sertraline at a reduced dose for an additional 3 months
B) Continue sertraline for 1-3 years
C) Continue sertraline for an additional 6 months
D) Continue sertraline for an additional 6 weeks
E) Continue sertraline indefinitely
F) Gradually taper off sertraline over several weeks
Correct Answer:
Verified
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