A 33-year-old woman comes to the office due to low mood and anxiety for the past 5 weeks. The patient broke up with her boyfriend 6 weeks ago and was recently passed over for a promotion at work. She says, "Nothing ever works out for me. I'm never going to find anyone at my age, and the people getting promotions are all younger than me." The patient has been "stress eating" on the weekends but reports no weight changes and continues to work out regularly. She has difficulty falling asleep and often lies awake at night worrying about her future. The patient likes having dinner with her friends but says, "I miss having a boyfriend to spend time with." The patient has no psychiatric history. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. She appears tearful and tends to look at the floor while speaking; she has no suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Bupropion
B) Escitalopram
C) Mirtazapine
D) Psychotherapy
E) Reassurance only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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