A 66-year-old woman comes to the office with her daughter for evaluation of behavioral changes. The daughter says, "My mother was living with a friend but moved into a one-bedroom apartment 3 months ago to be closer to the family. She was okay the first month but then started getting scared about living on her own. It's gotten so bad, she asked to move in with me last week." The patient has felt tense and appears distracted when spending time with family. She sleeps restlessly through the night due to nightmares and takes early-morning drives around town to "clear my mind." The patient has had no appetite changes or fatigue. The daughter says that the patient was hospitalized a year ago for surgical repair of a hip fracture after slipping in the bathroom. She was unable to move or call 911 and was found 8 hours later by a friend. The patient says she cannot remember details of the fall. Medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. The patient is fully oriented. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Speech is normal. She has no delusions, hallucinations, or suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Advise the patient not to live alone
B) Order MRI of the brain
C) Prescribe mirtazapine
D) Recommend neuropsychological testing
E) Refer for occupational therapy
F) Start cognitive-behavioral therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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