A 40-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of recurrent epistaxis. Every morning, the patient wakes up with significant nasal congestion; when he blows his nose, he often sees crusting and blood clots in the tissue. Afterward, his nose frequently (several times a week) starts bleeding. It stops with <5 minutes of pinching his nasal alae. Medical history includes obesity, hypertension, and obstructive sleep apnea treated with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) . Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the nose has bilateral crusting with excoriations on both sides of the nasal septum, but there is no bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management of this patient's condition?
A) Biopsy of the nasal septum
B) Complete blood count and coagulation panel
C) CPAP humidification
D) Nasal corticosteroid sprays
E) Oxymetazoline daily in the morning
Correct Answer:
Verified
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