A 52-year-old woman comes to the emergency department for rectal pain that started 2 hours ago. The pain is described as severe, burning, and exacerbated while sitting. Medical history is significant for chronic idiopathic constipation, for which she takes a fiber supplement. The patient has 4 children, all of whom were vaginally delivered. Family history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.2 (99 F) , blood pressure is 138/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. On physical examination, the patient appears in moderate distress due to pain. The abdomen is soft, nondistended, and nontender. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Anal examination reveals a small, exquisitely tender, bluish lesion at the anal verge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Condyloma acuminata
B) Crohn disease
C) Perianal abscess
D) Prolapsed internal hemorrhoid
E) Rectal prolapse
F) Thrombosed external hemorrhoid
Correct Answer:
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