A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance for right-sided weakness and slurred speech that started 30 minutes ago. The wife reports that her husband said he was dizzy, and shortly after, he developed acute right arm and leg weakness and was unable to speak. Medical history includes hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. The patient also takes an aspirin daily. Blood pressure is 225/110 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min. On examination, the patient is alert but aphasic with 0/5 strength in the right upper and lower extremities. Examination of the left upper and lower extremities is normal. A nicardipine infusion is started and CT scan of the head is performed. After returning from the CT scanner, the patient is minimally responsive and has developed hyperextension of all four extremities. CT scan shows a left-sided intracerebral hemorrhage with a 5-mm midline shift to the right. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer intravenous corticosteroids
B) Administer intravenous mannitol
C) Discontinue aspirin and transfuse platelets
D) Discuss do not resuscitate/do not intubate with family
E) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
Correct Answer:
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