A 52-year-old man comes to the office for 6 months of abdominal pain. The pain is intermittent, epigastric, radiating to the back, exacerbated by eating, and associated with nausea. He has no diarrhea, hematochezia, or melena. Medical and family history are both unremarkable. The patient has smoked cigarettes for 20 years and drinks 7 or 8 beers a day. Temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F) , blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, heart rate is 78/min, and respirations are 13/min. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals anicteric sclera, moist mucosal membranes, and normal heart and lung sounds. The abdomen is mildly tender to palpation in the epigastrium but without rebound or guarding. Laboratory results are as follows:
CT scan of the abdomen shows pancreatic atrophy along with multiple calcifications in the pancreatic parenchyma. MR cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) reveals a nondilated pancreatic duct without intraductal stones. In addition to lifestyle modification, which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Celiac plexus block
B) Endoscopic pancreatic sphincterotomy
C) Lipase supplementation
D) Long-acting oxycodone
E) Pancreatic surgery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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