A 72-year-old man comes to the office due to upper abdominal pain and weight loss. The abdominal pain is worse when eating food and is sometimes relieved with over-the-counter antacids. He has not had dysphagia, melena, or rectal bleeding. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is well controlled with chlorthalidone. He does not take other prescription or over-the-counter medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient emigrated from South Korea 20 years ago. Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 17.2 kg/m2. Mucous membranes are dry. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Epigastric fullness and tenderness are present, but there is no hepatosplenomegaly. Peripheral pulses are full and capillary refill is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Carcinoembryonic antigen testing
B) CT angiogram of the mesenteric vessels
C) CT scan of the abdomen
D) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
E) Gastric emptying scan
F) Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing
Correct Answer:
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