A 56-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit due to septic shock from pneumonia and is treated with intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and vasopressors. Four days later, the patient's hemodynamic and respiratory status has improved, but he has worsening anemia with positive stool occult blood. He has had no abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hematemesis, diarrhea, or hematochezia. Medical history includes hypertension but no prior gastrointestinal disorders. The patient is a smoker with a 40-pack-year history. Medications are intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/66 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Physical examination reveals right lung crackles and no abdominal tenderness. Hemoglobin is 10.2 g/dL (12.6 g/dL at admission) , platelets are 180,000/mm3, and leukocytes are 12,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's anemia?
A) Acute colonic ischemia
B) Acute infectious colitis
C) Diverticular bleeding
D) Peptic ulcer disease
E) Stress-induced ulcer
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q156: A 56-year-old man comes to the office
Q157: A 72-year-old retired plumber comes to the
Q158: A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q159: A 46-year-old man undergoes an elective inguinal
Q160: A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q162: A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q163: A 29-year-old man comes to the office
Q164: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q165: A 55-year-old man comes to the office
Q166: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents