A 62-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit a week after undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. In the past 2 months, he has had several episodes of retrosternal chest pain, and a myocardial perfusion scan revealed an area of reversible ischemia on the lateral wall. Coronary angiography was performed through a right femoral access, and a drug-eluting stent was placed in the left circumflex artery. The patient has had some discomfort in the right groin since the procedure. He has had no further episodes of chest pain or dyspnea. Other medical issues include hypertension and hyperlipidemia. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years and stopped smoking after he was diagnosed with heart disease. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. Heart sounds and lung auscultation are normal. There is mild swelling in the right inguinal area with a palpable thrill and a continuous murmur on auscultation. Lower extremity deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current findings?
A) Abnormal arteriovenous communication
B) Arterial pseudoaneurysm formation
C) Atherosclerotic arterial occlusion
D) Bleeding into the retroperitoneum
E) Iatrogenic peripheral nerve injury
F) Separation of arterial wall layers
G) Thrombotic deep venous occlusion
Correct Answer:
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