A 50-year-old man comes to the physician for a preventive visit. He has no chest pain or shortness of breath but does complain of occasional left posterior calf pain. The pain occurs most often with walking in the course of his job as a postal carrier, but he occasionally has leg cramps at rest. His other medical problems include diet-controlled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he does not take any medication regularly. The patient was hospitalized for chest pain 2 years ago. Cardiac stress test at that time was negative and he has had no recurrence. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. His father died suddenly at age 60, and his mother had a stroke in her 70s. His blood pressure is 138/92 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and body mass index is 28 kg/m2. Heart and lung examinations show no abnormalities. Popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are palpable bilaterally. An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm. His hemoglobin A1c level is 7.2%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal aortic ultrasound
B) Ankle-brachial index
C) Arterial ultrasound of the lower extremities
D) Exercise stress test
E) Nerve conduction studies
Correct Answer:
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