A 36-year-old man comes to the office due to pain and drainage under his right arm for the past week. For the past 5 years, the patient has had similar symptoms in both axillae. He initially had painful nodules that regressed spontaneously within 1-2 weeks. However, the lesions eventually progressed to thickened scars and openings that intermittently drained malodorous, seropurulent material. Medical history is unremarkable, and the patient takes no medications. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 36 kg/m2. Examination is shown in the exhibit.
There is no fluctuance or lymphadenopathy to palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Antifungal therapy
B) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
C) Prolonged antibiotic therapy
D) Wide excision
Correct Answer:
Verified
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