A 59-year-old man comes to the office with a 3-month history of persistent right ear pain. He has tried to control the pain with acetaminophen and ibuprofen but with no improvement. He has no other medical issues. He works as a welder and has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years and drinks a case of beer each weekend. Vital signs are within normal limits. Right ear examination shows a normal external ear, normal external auditory canal, and a clear tympanic membrane with no middle ear fluid. Palpation of the temporomandibular joint elicits no tenderness or crepitus. His left ear examination shows no abnormalities. Oral cavity examination shows poor dentition, but there are no ulcers. The tonsils are not enlarged, and posterior pharyngeal wall is nonerythematous. There is a nontender 2-cm lymph node on the right side of his neck. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Audiogram
B) Flexible laryngopharyngoscopy
C) MR imaging of the brain
D) Reassurance and symptomatic care
E) Tympanometry
F) Tympanostomy tube placement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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