A 45-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to left groin and abdominal pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The patient has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus, hypertension, and glucocorticoid-induced hyperglycemia. Abdominal examination shows central obesity; skin striae; and a nonreducible, tender mass in the left groin. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a left femoral hernia containing a bowel segment and dilated small bowel loops. The patient undergoes urgent exploratory laparotomy for resection of the obstructed bowel loop and repair of the hernia. There are no intraoperative complications, but she abruptly develops hypotension in the postoperative recovery unit. Blood pressure remains <90/60 mm Hg despite intravenous fluid boluses. Which of the following is the best immediate step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen
B) Dobutamine infusion
C) Intramuscular epinephrine
D) Intravenous colloid solutions
E) Intravenous hydrocortisone
Correct Answer:
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