A 41-year-old woman comes to the office for the evaluation of a lump on her left breast. She feels, "generally well," and denies having any medical problems. She takes a multivitamin and Tums daily. She stopped smoking after getting married 21 years ago. She drinks wine only on weekends. Her only surgery was a bilateral tubal ligation last year, after giving birth to her fourth child. Physical examination of the left breast reveals a 4 cm lump at the 11 o' clock position and two axillary nodes on the left side. Mammography shows irregular micro-calcifications. The result of the FNA is suggestive for infiltrating ductal carcinoma. Which of the following is the single most important prognostic factor in this patient?
A) TNM staging
B) Estrogen and progesterone receptor status
C) Her-2/neu oncogene expression
D) Histological grade of the tumor
E) Irregular micro calcifications in mammogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q287: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q288: A 33-year-old woman comes to the office
Q289: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q290: A 55-year-old man comes to the office
Q291: A 34-year-old man comes to the office
Q293: A 28-year-old woman develops tachycardia in the
Q294: A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for
Q295: A 70-year-old-man is admitted to the hospital
Q296: A 57-year-old man comes to the office
Q297: A 45-year-old woman is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents