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A 59-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office for Postoperative Follow-Up

Question 360

Multiple Choice

A 59-year-old man comes to the office for postoperative follow-up.  He underwent a partial (distal) gastrectomy for a perforated peptic ulcer 3 weeks ago.  The patient also received an extended course of antibiotics, with the last dose taken 2 weeks ago.  For the past 10 days, he has had intermittent abdominal cramps and diarrhea.  Symptoms begin 20-30 minutes after the patient eats and are associated with nausea, weakness, palpitations, light-headedness, and diaphoresis.  He has no symptoms overnight, and there is no associated fever or weight loss.  Medical history is notable for hypertension.  The patient has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit after the recent hospitalization.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 130/65 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min.  BMI is 26 kg/m2.  On examination, the abdomen is soft and nontender with normal bowel sounds.  The surgical wound is healing well and has no erythema or discharge.  Cardiopulmonary examination is normal.  Complete blood count is normal.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?


A) Dietary modification
B) Endoscopy
C) Reconstructive operation
D) Stool PCR for Clostridioides difficile
E) Upper gastrointestinal contrast x-ray study

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