A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend after vomiting bright red blood several times during the past 2 hours. The patient has no abdominal pain or diarrhea. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and alcoholic cirrhosis. His friend says that the patient continues to drink alcohol and is not sure whether he is taking his medications regularly. Temperature is 37.6 C (99.7 F) , blood pressure is 96/62 mm Hg, and pulse is 112/min. The patient has muscle wasting and scleral icterus. The abdomen is nontender and distended with bulging flanks. Rectal examination shows internal hemorrhoids and maroon stool that is positive for occult blood. He is receiving a normal saline infusion through a peripheral intravenous catheter. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer octreotide infusion
B) Obtain second intravenous access
C) Perform esophagogastroduodenoscopy
D) Perform mesenteric arteriography
E) Place Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
Correct Answer:
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