A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to worsening anal pain for the past 2 days. The patient initially had pain only during defecation, but now the pain is constant and severe. He also has anal pruritus but has not had any drainage. The patient reports a history of constipation with hard stools every 3-4 days requiring the frequent use of laxatives. He has had sexual intercourse with men and women and has had anoreceptive intercourse in the past. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 85/min. Physical examination shows an erythematous and tender 1-cm fluctuant mass near the anal orifice with induration of the overlaying skin. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Human papillomavirus infection of the anal canal
B) Infection of an occluded anal crypt gland
C) Overstretching and tearing of the anal mucosa
D) Prolapse of an internal hemorrhoid
E) Thrombosis of an external hemorrhoid
Correct Answer:
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