A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with 2 days of bright red blood per rectum. He complains of feeling dizzy and extremely fatigued. Six months ago, he had a diverticular bleed that required hospitalization. The patient has moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and uses his inhalers regularly. Three weeks ago, he was hospitalized for a COPD exacerbation and was also found to have a right femoral and popliteal vein thrombosis; he was discharged on warfarin. His mobility is significantly impaired by right hip osteoarthritis and back pain. Blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg and pulse is 115/min and regular. Mucous membranes are pale. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is swelling of the right ankle and calf. Laboratory results are as follows:
Warfarin is stopped. He is volume resuscitated and given a blood transfusion and fresh frozen plasma. Lower endoscopy reveals a diverticular bleed. Which of the following is the best management for this patient's deep venous thrombosis?
A) Initiate low-molecular-weight heparin
B) Initiate rivaroxaban
C) Initiate unfractionated heparin
D) Initiate warfarin with goal INR of 1-1.5
E) Place a retrievable inferior vena cava filter
F) Place compression stockings
G) Symptomatic treatment only
Correct Answer:
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