A 34-year-old man is admitted to the hospital following laparotomy for a gunshot wound. He received 5 units of packed red blood cells during surgery. Prophylactic perioperative ampicillin/sulbactam was given, and the patient performed incentive spirometry. On post-operative day 6, he develops a fever of 38.7 C (101.7 F) . Blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 14/min. On examination, the patient is alert and in no acute distress. The oropharynx is clear. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no discharge from the wound. He has a right internal jugular triple-lumen catheter and a Foley catheter in place. The extremities have no swelling or erythema. Two days later, blood cultures of samples taken from the triple-lumen catheter and a peripheral site grow coagulase-negative staphylococci in 4 of 4 bottles. What is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Blood culture contamination during collection
B) Catheter-related bloodstream infection
C) Foley catheter-related urinary tract infection
D) Hospital-acquired pneumonia
E) Surgical site infection
F) Transfusion-transmitted bacteremia
Correct Answer:
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