A 68-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to acute fever, malaise, lower abdominal discomfort, and right flank pain. Six months ago, he was hospitalized for similar symptoms and was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection; at that time, his urine culture grew Escherichia coli, and his symptoms completely resolved with antibiotic therapy. Over the past year, the patient has experienced frequent nighttime urination and dribbling but no gross hematuria. Medical history is significant for major depressive disorder and mild idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Temperature is 38.7 C (101.7 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. The patient appears acutely ill. Bilateral basal crackles are present. There is right costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's current condition?
A) Detrusor overactivity
B) High post-void residual volume
C) Infectious urethritis
D) Selective IgA deficiency
E) Staghorn calculi
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q433: A 64-year-old man comes to the office
Q434: A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q435: A 55-year-old man undergoes a conventional pancreaticoduodenectomy
Q436: A 15-year-old boy with sickle cell disease
Q437: A 35-year-old man is evaluated in the
Q439: A 28-year-old man comes to the office
Q440: A 43-year-old man comes to the hospital
Q441: A 38-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q442: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the
Q443: A 60-year-old woman with a history of
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents