A 43-year-old man comes to the hospital following 24 hours of increasing pain in the lower abdomen, scrotum, and perineum. He also has experienced malaise and nausea. He has had no abdominal surgeries or recent perianal or scrotal trauma. The patient has a history of morbid obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, and heart failure with preserved systolic function. Temperature is 39.7 C (103.5 F) , blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 18/min. Pulse oximetry shows 96% on room air. BMI is 47 kg/m2. The patient appears ill and uncomfortable. There is no jugular venous distension. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Heart sounds are normal. The skin over the lower abdomen, scrotum, and perineum is tense, tender, erythematous, and swollen with evidence of crepitus. Mild, bilateral, lower extremity edema is present. Laboratory results are as follows:
Blood cultures are obtained, and intravenous fluids and antibiotics are initiated. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and perineum
B) Emergent surgery
C) Hyperbaric oxygen
D) Intravenous corticosteroid bolus
E) Supportive care in critical care unit
Correct Answer:
Verified
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