A 55-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to a gunshot wound to the left abdomen. He undergoes an exploratory laparotomy involving a partial small bowel resection and a left nephrectomy. His postoperative hemoglobin is 10.4 mg/dL. The patient has no other medical history and takes no medications. Recovery is uneventful until postoperative day 4 when he develops fever, tachypnea, and shortness of breath. The patient is lethargic but responsive. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 75/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min and regular, and respirations are 22/min. There is no jugular venous distention. Lung auscultation reveals crackles at the right lung base. There are no cardiac murmurs. Abdominal examination shows a well-healing abdominal wound and a soft, nondistended abdomen. His urine output over the last 12 hours is 100 mL. Laboratory results are as follows: Broad-spectrum antibiotics are started. Which of the following additional treatments is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Hemodialysis
B) Intravenous lactated Ringer
C) Intravenous albumin infusion
D) Intravenous dopamine
E) Intravenous hydrocortisone
F) Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
G) Red blood cell transfusion
Correct Answer:
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