A 23-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of right leg pain. The patient underwent a below-knee amputation 4 months ago following a motorcycle collision in which he sustained nonsalvageable devascularization of the right foot. The patient reports having severe postoperative pain and expresses frustration that it hasn't gone away. The pain is shooting in quality and located in the absent portion of the extremity. It is often worse on urination or defecation. Vitals signs are normal. Examination of the right lower extremity shows a well-healed surgical scar and adequate soft tissue padding over the distal bone. The distal stump is nontender to palpation and percussion. Range of motion at the spine, hip, and right knee are full and nonpainful. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities
B) Injection of local anesthetic
C) MRI of the lumbar spine
D) Multimodal pain regimen
E) Surgical stump revision
Correct Answer:
Verified
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