A 16-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with heavy vaginal bleeding for 3 days. The patient's menses have been irregular since menarche at age 14 and occur every 4-5 months; her previous menstrual period was almost 4 months ago. She has no medical problems and has had no surgeries. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient is sexually active and uses condoms for contraception. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. On pelvic examination, there is a moderate amount of blood in the vaginal vault and active bleeding from the cervical os. Bimanual examination shows a small uterus and no adnexal masses. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a small uterus with a thick endometrial stripe and normal ovaries. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Emergency dilation and curettage
B) High-dose gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists
C) High-dose oral contraceptive therapy
D) Packed red blood cell transfusion
E) Workup for coagulation factor deficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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