A 34-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea. Last year the patient had a missed abortion that was surgically managed with suction curettage. At her follow-up visit a few weeks later she had a copper-releasing intrauterine device placed. Her menstrual periods were initially irregular and heavy, but the bleeding became increasingly lighter. Now the patient has not had a menstrual period in 6 months. Prior to the intrauterine device placement she had regular menses. The patient has had no weight changes, changes in vision, or galactorrhea. She has generalized anxiety disorder. Her older brother has severe intellectual disability due to fragile X syndrome. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows a small, mobile uterus with no adnexal masses. There is no tenderness over the perineum with speculum examination. Pregnancy test is negative. TSH is normal and FSH is elevated. A progesterone challenge is performed and the patient has no withdrawal bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea
B) Intrauterine adhesions
C) Intrauterine device-induced amenorrhea
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
E) Primary ovarian insufficiency
Correct Answer:
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