A 32-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of postcoital bleeding. She has monthly menstrual cycles with 4 days of light vaginal bleeding, but for the past 2 months she has also had postcoital bleeding. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with HIV, but she stopped taking antiretroviral therapy due to medication side effects and has not seen a provider since then. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. On examination, the uterus is small, mobile, and nontender. There is an ulcerative lesion on the posterior aspect of the cervix that bleeds with contact. The rest of the cervix has no lesions, and there is no endocervical discharge. The left inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged and nontender. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Treponema pallidum
F) Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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