A 60-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office due to progressive bloating. The patient has noticed that she cannot fit into any of her pants despite recent nausea and a decreased appetite. She feels full quickly with meals and has increasing constipation. Menopause was at age 51, and she has had no postmenopausal bleeding or hormone replacement therapy. The patient has had no surgeries and all of her children were born via spontaneous vaginal delivery. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is nontender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are normal and there is no fluid wave. Pelvic examination reveals a firm, immobile mass in the left adnexa and rectovaginal nodularity. A pelvic ultrasound and CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis confirm the physical examination findings. CA-125 is 57 U/mL (normal: <35 U/mL) . Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Estrogen and FSH levels
C) Exploratory laparotomy
D) Image-guided biopsy of pelvic mass
E) Small bowel follow-through
Correct Answer:
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