A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain for the past 2 weeks. The pain has become worse over the past day and is not relieved by ibuprofen. The patient has a fever but no nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or dysuria. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago; menses are regular and last 5 days, with painful cramping and heavy bleeding on the first day. The patient is sexually active with a male partner and uses condoms for contraception. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.8 C (101.8 F) , blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. The abdomen has diffuse tenderness to deep palpation that is worse in the right lower quadrant. There is no rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination reveals a small, mobile, tender uterus and an enlarged, tender right adnexal mass. Leukocyte count is 22,000/mm3. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals a large, thick-walled, multiloculated mass filled with debris obliterating the right adnexa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Appendiceal abscess
B) Endometriosis
C) Mature cystic teratoma
D) Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma
E) Ovarian torsion
F) Tuboovarian abscess
Correct Answer:
Verified
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