A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for an annual examination. The patient feels well and has no concerns. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Her last Pap test was performed 3 years ago and was normal. She is sexually active with 1 partner and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. The patient had a progestin-containing intrauterine device placed 2 years ago and has been amenorrheic for the past year. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 65/min. On pelvic examination, the uterus is small with no cervical motion or adnexal tenderness. On speculum examination, the intrauterine device strings are visible through the cervical os. There are no cervical lesions or abnormal discharge. A Pap test performed today indicates no evidence of cervical dysplasia but shows multiple Actinomyces organisms. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) No additional management indicated
B) Penicillin therapy and continued use of the intrauterine device
C) Performance of cervical culture for Actinomyces
D) Removal of the intrauterine device and penicillin therapy
E) Removal of the intrauterine device only
Correct Answer:
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