An 88-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to postmenopausal bleeding. The patient has had bright red vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain for the past week. She lives in a nursing home and was brought by her caregiver, who states that she is also refusing to bathe or leave her room. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 36 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The vulva is edematous and tender and there is a friable posterior perineal laceration. The vagina is dry and pale, and the cervix is stenotic. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. On ultrasound, the uterus is small with a 3-mm endometrial lining, the ovaries are not visualized, and no adnexal masses are present. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Pelvic MRI
C) Pessary placement
D) Sexual abuse screening
E) Topical corticosteroids
F) Vulvar biopsy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q160: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q161: A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q162: A 21-year-old woman is brought to the
Q163: A 26-year-old woman comes to the office
Q164: A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q166: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q167: A 33-year-old woman comes to the office
Q168: Serum rapid plasma reagin and herpes simplex
Q169: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q170: A 54-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents