A 68-year-old woman comes to the office due to blood-tinged vaginal discharge. The patient has had intermittent, slightly malodorous discharge for the past several weeks but has not passed large clots or had heavy vaginal bleeding. Medical history is significant for exposure to diethylstilbestrol in utero that resulted in infertility. She underwent menopause at age 55 and has used combined menopause hormone therapy for several years. Her mother was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at age 54, and her uncle was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 70. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years and drinks a few glasses of wine each week. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Pelvic examination demonstrates a blood-tinged watery discharge and a 3-cm ulcerated lesion on the posterior vaginal wall; the cervix appears normal. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a 2-mm endometrial stripe. Biopsy of the lesion demonstrates squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for this patient's diagnosis?
A) Body mass index
B) Chronic tobacco use
C) Diethylstilbestrol exposure in utero
D) Family history
E) History of infertility
F) Prior menopause hormone therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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