Solved

A 24-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for Evaluation of Abnormal

Question 234

Multiple Choice

A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of abnormal vaginal bleeding.  The patient has a history of heavy, regular menstrual periods for which a progestin-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) was placed 2 years ago.  After IUD insertion, the patient became amenorrheic.  However, for the last month, she has had light vaginal spotting with wiping.  The patient also recently developed intermittent pelvic pain that has now become constant and unrelieved with ibuprofen.  She has no chronic medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Family history is unremarkable.  On bimanual pelvic examination, there is uterine and bilateral adnexal tenderness.  The IUD strings are palpable at the cervix.  Urine pregnancy test is negative.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?


A) Adenomyosis
B) Endocervical polyp
C) Endometriosis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
E) Progestin-induced endometrial atrophy

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents