A 32-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office for a follow-up appointment at 28 weeks gestation. The patient has gestational diabetes mellitus diagnosed at 25 weeks gestation and has been managing it with dietary modification. She follows a low-carbohydrate diet and eats 3 small meals and 2 snacks daily, as recommended by her dietitian. Fasting blood glucose levels have been 110-130 mg/dL for the past 3 weeks, and most of the patient's 2-hour postprandial blood glucose levels have been >140 mg/dL. Review of systems is negative for polyuria or polydipsia. BMI is 38 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 134/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Canagliflozin
B) Dietary modification
C) Insulin
D) Pioglitazone
E) Weight loss
Correct Answer:
Verified
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