A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is evaluated on labor and delivery for heavy vaginal bleeding. Thirty minutes earlier, the patient underwent a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery of a 4.4 kg (9 lb 11 oz) male infant at 41 weeks gestation. She feels dizzy and nauseated. The patient has asthma and has had to use her albuterol inhaler with increasing frequency throughout her pregnancy. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 104/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 102/min. Oxygen saturation is 98%. The patient appears pale. The abdomen is soft and nontender, and the fundus is boggy and palpable above the umbilicus. Pelvic examination shows an intact perineal repair, no vaginal or cervical lacerations, and profuse vaginal bleeding with passage of large clots. Uterine massage and high-dose oxytocin do not resolve the bleeding. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Carboprost tromethamine
C) Fresh frozen plasma
D) Tranexamic acid
E) Vaginal packing with sterile gauze
Correct Answer:
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