A 21-year-old man comes to the office due to pain and itching in his left ear. The symptoms began after a swimming party and have progressively worsened. The patient has also noted scant discharge on his pillow when waking in the morning. There is no associated hearing loss, tinnitus, or vertigo. Medical history is unremarkable and he takes no medications. Vital signs are normal without fever. Pain is elicited when the auricle is pulled superiorly or the tragus is pressed inward. The ear canal is edematous and erythematous, with soft cerumen and yellowish debris. There is no periauricular erythema or lymphadenopathy. Following gentle removal of debris from the canal under direct visualization, the tympanic membrane is fully inspected and appears normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Prescribe antibiotic ear drops
B) Prescribe aqueous glucocorticoid drops
C) Prescribe opioid analgesic and reassure patient
D) Prescribe oral amoxicillin/clavulanate
E) Refer to otolaryngologist for wick placement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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