A 25-year-old man comes to the office due to decreased libido, fatigue, and weight gain. For the last few months, the patient has been unable to attain a satisfactory erection during intercourse with his girlfriend. He has had no headaches, blurred vision, fever, nausea, or vomiting. The patient has had no significant prior medical problems and takes no prescription medications but does take several over-the-counter supplements to boost his metabolism. He does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. His mother was treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and his father has no major medical problems. Blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg and pulse is 56/min. The patient appears fit and well-built with no significant abnormalities noted on examination. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Measure serum erythropoietin
B) Measure serum transferrin saturation
C) Obtain MRI of the pituitary
D) Start testosterone replacement
E) Stop the supplements and re-evaluate
Correct Answer:
Verified
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