A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of palpitations, sweating, and severe headache. His symptoms resolve spontaneously by the time he is evaluated. He has had at least 2 similar episodes during the past 2 months. The patient's family history is unremarkable. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His primary care provider saw him after the first episode and prescribed an anxiolytic medication. However, the patient felt drowsy at his job and stopped the medication. Physical examination shows a thin man who appears anxious and diaphoretic. The thyroid is normal to palpation without any obvious nodules. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 16/min. During his prior emergency department visit for an identical episode, his blood pressure was 150/100 mm Hg and pulse was 120/min. The laboratory results at that time showed normal thyroid function tests. The patient is placed on appropriate preoperative medications and is taken for surgical removal of the tumor. During the procedure, he rapidly becomes hypotensive. His blood pressure falls from 110/89 mm Hg to 80/50 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's hypotension?
A) Bolus of normal saline followed by continuous normal saline infusion
B) Dobutamine infusion
C) Dopamine infusion
D) Intravenous colloid bolus
E) Intravenous phentolamine bolus
Correct Answer:
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