A 2-year-old boy is brought to the office due to fever, cough, and irritability lasting 3 days. Medical history is significant for a perirectal abscess that was drained at age 9 months. Temperature is 38.9 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 24/min. Eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are normal. Bilateral patchy crackles are auscultated in the lower lobes. Chest x-ray confirms bilateral focal pneumonia. The patient receives empiric antibiotic therapy; however, he is persistently febrile after 3 days. CT scan of the chest reveals a small, left pleural effusion and enlarged paratracheal and hilar lymphadenopathy, in addition to the bilateral pneumonia. Fine-needle biopsy of the lymph nodes and lung tissue shows an inflammatory reaction with granuloma formation. Biopsy cultures grow Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia. What is the mechanism most likely responsible for this patient's current infection?
A) Decreased immunoglobulin production
B) Decreased superoxide production
C) Defective opsonization
D) Impaired clearing of airway secretions
E) Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis
Correct Answer:
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