A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She has no lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or vaginal discharge. Her past medical history is remarkable for 1 episode of uncomplicated urinary tract infection treated with a short course of antibiotics. She is currently not taking any medications. She has had 5 sexual partners in her life and has used barrier contraception the majority of the time. Her latest sexual relationship began 3 months ago. Her last cervical cancer screening examination was a Pap smear performed at the age of 23 that showed no abnormalities. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. During her visit, she requests screening for cervical cancer and appears extremely concerned as her older sister was recently diagnosed with it.
Based on the study results, which of the following testing sequences would be most effective for ruling out cervical neoplasia in this patient?
A) Perform HPV testing → if positive (≥1 pg HPV DNA/mL) , perform Pap smear → if positive (ASCUS or worse) , refer for biopsy
B) Perform HPV testing → if positive (≥1 pg HPV DNA/mL) , refer for biopsy
C) Perform Pap smear → if positive (ASCUS or worse) , perform HPV testing → if positive (≥1 pg HPV DNA/mL) , refer for biopsy
D) Perform Pap smear → if positive (ASCUS or worse) , refer for biopsy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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