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A 45-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician Due to a 4-Month

Question 156

Multiple Choice

A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician due to a 4-month history of vague abdominal pain that is unrelated to food intake.  The pain occasionally occurs in the middle of the night.  She has had loss of appetite during this period but no nausea, vomiting, weight loss, or blood in the stool.  Three years ago, the patient had aortic valve replacement with a mechanical valve for bicuspid aortic valve and aortic root repair.  Her only medication is daily warfarin.  Recent laboratory results showed hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL and an INR of 2.5.  Echocardiography 4 weeks ago revealed normal left ventricular function and a normally functioning prosthetic aortic valve.  She is scheduled for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to evaluate her abdominal pain.  The decision is made not to interrupt her anticoagulation.  Which of the following is the best additional recommendation before this patient's procedure?


A) Intravenous antibiotic during the procedure if biopsy is required
B) Intravenous antibiotic immediately before the procedure
C) No need for antibiotic prophylaxis
D) Oral antibiotic after the procedure if biopsy is required
E) Oral antibiotic before the procedure

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