A 62-year-old Caucasian man comes to the emergency department (ED) and complains of crushing substernal chest pain. The pain started one hour ago while he was shoveling snow on his driveway. At the onset of his pain, he took nitroglycerin sublingually, but the pain did not get any better and he was taken to the ED by his son. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. He is on daily aspirin, metoprolol, lisinopril, atorvastatin, and naproxen as needed. In the ED, his electrocardiogram reveals a normal sinus rhythm with no acute ST-T wave changes. He is given morphine for his pain, started on nitroglycerin drip, and admitted to the telemetry floor. The next day, an adenosine thallium stress test reveals a moderate size reversible perfusion defect in the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Which of the following coronary vessels is most likely to have a significant occlusion?
A) Left circumflex coronary artery
B) Left anterior descending coronary artery
C) Left main coronary artery
D) Right coronary artery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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