A 49-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to hearing loss. Upon awakening this morning, she was unable to hear out of her right ear. She also hears a loud ringing noise in her right ear. The patient has no ear pain or dizziness. This has never occurred before. She has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the ear canals and tympanic membranes are clear. There is no middle ear effusion. Weber tuning fork examination lateralizes to the left. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction bilaterally. The remainder of the neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
B) Aural irrigation
C) Ciprofloxacin ear drops
D) Reassurance and follow-up in 6 weeks
E) Urgent otolaryngology evaluation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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