A 62-year-old man comes to the office to follow-up diabetes. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 12 years ago and is being treated with sitagliptin and metformin. The patient's father also had type 2 diabetes and died of a "massive heart attack" at age 67. He states, "My father refused to take insulin despite very high sugar levels. I do not want to be like him." The patient has good compliance with his medication regimen as well as with dietary and exercise recommendations. However, his home finger-stick blood glucose levels are frequently >250-300 mg/dL. The patient feels tired during the day as his sleep is interrupted by frequent urination, and he is often bothered by a pins-and-needles sensation in his feet when trying to sleep. He has lost significant weight since his last visit, which he attributes to rigorous lifestyle changes. Medical history is notable for obesity, gout, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The patient's other medications include atorvastatin, low-dose aspirin, lisinopril, and amlodipine. He quit smoking 30 years ago and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 134/80 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Examination of the feet is notable for a bilateral decrease in sensation on monofilament testing. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Hemoglobin A1c is 9.5% and serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL. The patient is counseled on the possibility of starting a long-acting basal insulin analog. Which of the following is an advantage of using this therapy over NPH for this patient?
A) Decreased progression of diabetic nephropathy
B) Fewer injection site reactions
C) Lower cost
D) Lower long-term risk of cardiovascular events
E) Lower risk of hypoglycemia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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