A 25-year-old woman comes to the office due to amenorrhea. The patient has had no changes in vision, cold or heat intolerance, or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Menarche was at age 12; her menstrual cycles are normally 28 days long with 3-4 days of light bleeding. Medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and a seizure disorder. Three months ago, the patient was hospitalized for generalized tonic-clonic seizures and phenytoin was added to her medication regimen. She has had no seizure activity since. Blood glucose levels are well controlled with insulin. She is sexually active and uses estrogen/progestin combination oral contraceptives. Four years ago, the patient underwent dilation and curettage for the termination of a pregnancy which was complicated by hemorrhage requiring a blood transfusion. She has no history of sexually transmitted infections and her last Pap test was normal. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 12/min. BMI is 22 kg/m2. There is minimal facial acne. Visual fields are intact. The thyroid is nonenlarged with no palpable masses. The breasts are mildly tender to palpation; there are no masses or expressed nipple discharge. The abdomen is soft and nontender, with no palpable masses. Pelvic examination shows a mobile uterus with no adnexal masses. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Decreased oral contraceptive efficacy
B) Formation of intrauterine adhesions
C) Ovarian insufficiency secondary to autoimmune disease
D) Pituitary gland infarction
E) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct Answer:
Verified
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