A 63-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office for urinary incontinence. The patient has been experiencing involuntary leakage of urine that occurs after a strong sensation "that I really have to go." After the sensation occurs, "I can never get to the bathroom in time." The patient reports that her symptoms started over 2 years ago. The leakage was initially occasional but now occurs 2 or 3 times a day and soaks an entire pad. The patient's symptoms occur randomly and she now avoids leaving the house. She has hypertension controlled on an ACE inhibitor. She has had no surgery. The patient's deliveries were all vaginal; her Pap tests have been normal. She drinks 8 ounces of water 3 or 4 times a day but limits water intake in the evening; on weekends she drinks a cup of caffeinated coffee with breakfast. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Speculum examination shows a pale vagina without rugae. Bimanual examination reveals a small, mobile uterus and no adnexal masses. No leakage of urine occurs when the patient coughs with a full bladder. After voiding, the patient is catheterized and 30 mL of urine are drained from the bladder. Urinalysis is within normal limits. The patient returns to the office 10 weeks later for follow-up. She reports no response to the initial therapy. Repeat urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Collect a urine sample for culture and cytology
B) Prescribe a course of terazosin
C) Prescribe a course of tolterodine
D) Recommend a urethral sling procedure
E) Recommend intermittent self-catheterization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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