A 32-year-old woman telephones the office due to continued vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus. She first noticed the presence of a white, malodorous vaginal discharge a week ago. The patient began using an over-the-counter antifungal cream at that time. A few times last year she had similar symptoms that resolved with the same medication. The patient was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus 20 years ago. She has had no surgeries. The patient has no medication allergies and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is noncontributory. She is sexually active and uses a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device for contraception. The patient is concerned about the ongoing symptoms and asks for a recommendation of a more effective treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) Obtain a more detailed sexual history
B) Prescribe a single dose of oral fluconazole
C) Recommend removal of the intrauterine device
D) Review blood sugar control over the past month
E) Schedule an appointment in the office for an examination
Correct Answer:
Verified
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