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A 34-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Emergency Department Due to a 12-Hour

Question 252

Multiple Choice

A 34-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a 12-hour history of sudden-onset, upper abdominal pain.  She describes the pain as intense, constant, and radiating to the back.  The pain is relieved by leaning forward and worsens with eating.  The patient also reports nausea and has vomited several times.  She has no previous episodes of abdominal pain, fever, chills, weight loss, fatigue, or night sweats.  The patient has no known medical conditions and takes no prescription or over-the-counter medications.  She does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs.  Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago and was normal.  The patient is sexually active with a male partner and uses condoms.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 134/72 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min.  BMI is 24 kg/m2.  Physical examination shows moist mucous membranes and anicteric sclera.  Lung fields are clear, and S1 and S2 are normal.  The abdomen is soft and tender in the upper abdomen but without rebound, involuntary guarding, or rigidity.  Bowel sounds are normal.  Neither hepatomegaly nor splenomegaly is present.  Bimanual examination reveals no adnexal masses or tenderness.  Neurologic examination is within normal limits.
The patient is diagnosed with hypertriglyceridemia-induced acute pancreatitis, and intravenous insulin is started.  Although the triglyceride levels improve in response to therapy, her abdominal pain remains unchanged by day 8 of hospitalization.  The patient tolerates minimal nutritional intake despite the use of a nasogastric tube.  Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F) , blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 107/min, and respirations are 22/min.  Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air.  Physical examination reveals tenderness in the upper abdomen to deep palpation without involuntary guarding, rebound, or rigidity.  Repeat laboratory analysis reveals leukocytosis with a left shift, whereas hemoglobin and liver function tests remain unchanged.  Which of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Administration of corticosteroids
B) CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
C) Intravenous fluconazole
D) Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
E) Placement of a nasojejunal tube

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